The Father imposed His wrath due unto,
and the Son underwent punishment for,
either:
1. All the sins of all men.
2. All the sins of some men, or
3. Some of the sins of all men.
In which case it may be said:
a. That if the last be true, all
men have some sins to answer
for, and so, none are saved.
b. That if the second be true,
then Christ, in their stead
suffered for all the sins of all
the elect in the
whole world, and this is the truth.
c. But if the first be the case,
why are not all men free from
the punishment due unto their
sins?
You answer, "Because of unbelief."
I ask, Is this unbelief a sin, or is it
not? If it be, then Christ suffered the
punishment due unto it, or
He did not. If He did, why must that
hinder them more than their other sins
for which He died? If
He did not, He did not die for all their
sins!"
2_green.GIF)
